This is a common question that usually comes up after a kerfuffle on social media. The short answer is no. We use the same methodology for evaluating every Greek text and their variants. We believe Scripture, as our ultimate epistemic authority (2 Cor 10:4,5), is the only sure and biblical foundation for how we are to evaluate the Greek copies. Verses such as the following provide us with the framework that is to guide our approach:
Isa 59:21 As for me, this is my covenant with them, saith the LORD; My spirit that is upon thee, and my words which I have put in thy mouth, shall not depart out of thy mouth, nor out of the mouth of thy seed, nor out of the mouth of thy seed’s seed, saith the LORD, from henceforth and for ever.
Psa 12:6-7 The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. (7) Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.
Rom 3:1-2 What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision? (2) Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.
1Ti 3:15 But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth.
So why then is it even mentioned? Proverbs 26:4,5 give us a methodology for dealing with unbelief. In verse 5 we are told to answer a fool according to his folly, lest he be wise in his own conceit. This is why we will bring up the textual information for both the Pericope de Adulterae and the Longer Ending of Mark. If textual critics were treating the textual evidence objectively as they claim, then based SOLELY upon the evidence, they must accept the Pericope & LEM as Scripture. The fact that they don’t shows they are being arbitrary in their textual decisions. In the Daily Metzger series, you will see just how arbitrary and unbiblical textual critics are.